These 30 practice questions show the kind of questions and explanations you get with PrepRaven. They cover all 3 sections from the State Department's online FSOT practice test for the Foreign Service Officer Test (FSOT), ten for each section, from easy to hard. Every question is original. None of them is a real exam question.
Use this free FSOT practice test to see the three kinds of questions on the Foreign Service Officer Test in the format the State Department introduced in October 2025. Every question has four answer choices, as on the State Department's own online practice test. The Job Knowledge questions test facts about U.S. government, history, world history, geography and economics, plus math and statistics you work out by hand, because the test allows no calculator. Each Job Knowledge answer names the public government page it comes from, such as the Constitution at the National Archives or a Milestones page from the State Department's Office of the Historian, so that you can read more. The English and Logical Reasoning questions use made-up memos, notices and work scenarios, so the answer always comes from what the question states.
The State Department's online practice test has 125 questions in 115 minutes: 50 Job Knowledge questions in 35 minutes, 45 English questions in 35 minutes and 30 Logical Reasoning questions in 45 minutes. It does not publish separate counts for the live test. This page is a shorter practice set of our own, 10 questions per section.
Job Knowledge
U.S. government, history and society; world history and geography; economics; and math and statistics, as the State Department's practice-test page described it in October 2026. No calculator. The State Department's practice test has 50 questions in 35 minutes.
Question 1 (easy)
Under the U.S. Constitution, the President makes treaties with the advice and consent of the Senate. How many senators must agree before a treaty is made?
- A. A simple majority of the full Senate
- B. Two-thirds of the senators present
- C. Three-fifths of the full Senate
- D. Two-thirds of the senators and two-thirds of the House
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Article II, Section 2 gives the President power to make treaties with the advice and consent of the Senate, "provided two thirds of the Senators present concur." A simple majority is enough to pass an ordinary bill, not to approve a treaty, and the House of Representatives has no vote on treaties. Three-fifths is not the treaty rule in the Constitution.
Question 2 (medium)
Which of these powers does the U.S. Constitution give to Congress rather than to the President?
- A. To receive ambassadors and other public ministers
- B. To grant pardons for offenses against the United States
- C. To make treaties, with the advice and consent of the Senate
- D. To regulate commerce with foreign nations
Show answer
Correct answer: D. Article I, Section 8 lists the powers of Congress, including the power "To regulate Commerce with foreign Nations." The other three are the President's powers: Article II, Section 3 says the President shall receive ambassadors, and Article II, Section 2 gives the President the power to grant pardons and to make treaties with the Senate's consent. The treaty choice is the closest trap, because the Senate takes part, but the power to make treaties belongs to the President.
Question 3 (easy)
From which country did the United States buy the Louisiana Territory in 1803?
- A. France
- B. Spain
- C. Great Britain
- D. Mexico
Show answer
Correct answer: A. The Office of the Historian says the United States purchased the territory from France in 1803 for $15 million. Spain is the common mix-up: Spain had owned Louisiana since 1762, but France acquired it from Spain in 1800 and took possession in 1802, before the sale.
Question 4 (medium)
In his December 2, 1823, address to Congress, President James Monroe set out a policy now called the Monroe Doctrine.
Which principle was part of it?
- A. The United States would take over the European colonies already in the Americas
- B. The United States would join a European alliance to defend Latin America
- C. The Americas were closed to future colonization by European powers
- D. The United States would stop trading with European countries that had colonies
Show answer
Correct answer: C. The Office of the Historian says Monroe declared that the Americas were not to be considered subjects for future colonization by any European powers, and it sums up the doctrine as separate spheres of influence, non-colonization and non-intervention. Taking over existing colonies is the opposite of what he said: the United States pledged not to interfere in the European colonies already in the Americas. Joining a European alliance goes against the idea of separate spheres, and the doctrine said nothing about ending trade.
Question 5 (easy)
The Marshall Plan, which Secretary of State George C. Marshall called for in 1947, was mainly a program to do what?
- A. Help rebuild Europe after World War II
- B. Form a military alliance of Western nations against the Soviet Union
- C. Rebuild the economy of Japan after its surrender
- D. Set up the United Nations to keep the peace after the war
Show answer
Correct answer: A. The Office of the Historian says Marshall called in June 1947 for a comprehensive program to rebuild Europe, and Congress passed the Economic Cooperation Act in March 1948 to fund it. The military alliance is NATO, formed in 1949, a separate step. The Marshall Plan was aimed at Europe, not Japan, and it did not create the United Nations.
Question 6 (medium)
In 1949, the United States, Canada and ten European countries signed the North Atlantic Treaty and formed NATO. What did they agree to?
- A. To place all of their armed forces under a single U.S. commander
- B. To consider an attack against one an attack against all
- C. To remove every tariff on trade among the member countries
- D. To admit any European country that asked to join the alliance
Show answer
Correct answer: B. The Office of the Historian says the twelve founding members agreed to consider an attack against one an attack against all, the principle of collective defense. The treaty did not merge the members' forces under one national commander, it was not a trade agreement and it did not promise membership to every European country that asked.
Question 7 (easy)
According to the State Department's Office of the Historian, the United States wanted a canal across Panama, completed in 1914, so that it could ship goods quickly and cheaply between which two coasts?
- A. The Gulf of Mexico and Atlantic coasts
- B. The Atlantic and Pacific coasts
- C. The Pacific and Arctic coasts
- D. The Great Lakes and Atlantic coasts
Show answer
Correct answer: B. The Office of the Historian says the United States wanted to ship goods quickly and cheaply between the Atlantic and Pacific coasts, and it places Colon on the Atlantic side of the canal and Panama City on the Pacific side. Ships could already sail between the Gulf of Mexico and the Atlantic coast without crossing Panama, and the canal does not reach the Arctic or the Great Lakes.
Question 8 (medium)
According to the Federal Reserve, it conducts the nation's monetary policy in pursuit of which goals?
- A. A balanced federal budget and lower taxes
- B. Stable prices and a balanced federal budget
- C. Full employment and stable prices
- D. A stronger dollar and a smaller trade deficit
Show answer
Correct answer: C. The Federal Reserve's page on its purpose says it conducts monetary policy by influencing money and credit conditions "in pursuit of full employment and stable prices." The federal budget and taxes are fiscal policy, set by Congress and the President, not goals of monetary policy, which is why the choice that pairs stable prices with a balanced budget is wrong even though it is half right. A stronger dollar and a smaller trade deficit are not the goals the Federal Reserve names.
Question 9 (hard)
The U.S. Bureau of Economic Analysis publishes the nation's gross domestic product (GDP). What does GDP measure?
- A. The value of all goods and services sold in the United States, including parts used to make other products
- B. The value of the goods and services produced by U.S.-owned companies anywhere in the world
- C. The value of the goods and services that the United States sells to other countries
- D. The value of the final goods and services produced in the United States
Show answer
Correct answer: D. The Bureau of Economic Analysis says GDP measures the value of the final goods and services produced in the United States. Counting parts used to make other products would count them twice, once on their own and again inside the finished product, which is why GDP counts only final goods and services. GDP counts what is produced inside the country, whoever owns the company, and sales to other countries (exports) are only one part of it.
Question 10 (hard)
Analyst Zsofia Dovzhenko's facts: On seven working days in a row, the visa unit held 12, 18, 9, 15, 21, 10 and 13 interviews.
Which statement about the mean and the median of these counts is correct?
- A. The mean is 14 and the median is 13
- B. The mean is 13 and the median is 14
- C. The mean is 14 and the median is 15
- D. The mean is 13 and the median is 15
Show answer
Correct answer: A. The seven counts add up to 98, and 98 divided by 7 is 14, the mean. For the median, put the counts in order (9, 10, 12, 13, 15, 18, 21) and take the middle one, the fourth, which is 13. A median of 15 comes from taking the middle number without sorting the list first, and the choice with a mean of 13 and a median of 14 swaps the two values. The FSOT allows no calculator, so practice sums like this by hand.
English Usage and Comprehension
Grammar, spelling, punctuation, sentence and paragraph revision and reading comprehension, on text like the documents officers proofread. The practice test has 45 questions in 35 minutes.
Question 11 (easy)
Read the sentence, then answer the question.
[A] After the staff meeting, [B] the deputy chief of mission asked [C] Ms. Ravelo and I [D] to proofread the press release.
Which marked part of the sentence contains an error?
- A. [A] After the staff meeting
- B. [B] the deputy chief of mission asked
- C. [C] Ms. Ravelo and I
- D. [D] to proofread the press release
Show answer
Correct answer: C. "Ms. Ravelo and I" is the object of "asked," and therefore it needs the object pronoun: "asked Ms. Ravelo and me." A quick test is to drop the other person: "asked I to proofread" is plainly wrong, and "asked me to proofread" is right. The other parts are correct: the opening phrase is followed by a comma, the job title is lowercase because it is not used before a name, and "to proofread the press release" completes "asked."
Question 12 (easy)
Read the situation, then answer the question.
A consular assistant is writing a notice for the embassy's public website.
Which sentence has no spelling errors?
- A. Applicants who recieve a separate letter must bring it to the interview.
- B. Applicants who receive a seperate letter must bring it to the interview.
- C. Applicants who recieve a seperate letter must bring it to the interview.
- D. Applicants who receive a separate letter must bring it to the interview.
Show answer
Correct answer: D. Only one sentence spells both words correctly: "receive" (e before i after c) and "separate" (with "par" in the middle). The other sentences misspell one or both words as "recieve" or "seperate." Everything else in the four sentences is the same.
Question 13 (medium)
Read the sentence, then answer the question.
[A] Neither the consul nor her two assistants [B] was able to attend the briefing, [C] which had been moved [D] to Thursday morning.
Which marked part of the sentence contains an error?
- A. [A] Neither the consul nor her two assistants
- B. [B] was able to attend the briefing
- C. [C] which had been moved
- D. [D] to Thursday morning
Show answer
Correct answer: B. When two subjects are joined by "neither ... nor," the verb agrees with the nearer subject. Here the nearer subject is "her two assistants," which is plural, so the verb should be "were able," not "was able." "Neither ... nor" is paired correctly, the comma before "which" is right because the clause adds information about a briefing already named, and "had been moved" correctly shows that the move happened earlier.
Question 14 (medium)
Read the situation, then answer the question.
A political officer is writing a summary of a meeting for her supervisor.
Which sentence is written most clearly and correctly?
- A. After reviewing the draft agreement, the officer listed three changes for the delegation to discuss.
- B. After reviewing the draft agreement, three changes were listed for the delegation to discuss.
- C. After reviewing the draft agreement, the delegation's three changes were listed by the officer for discussion.
- D. Three changes, after reviewing the draft agreement, the officer listed for the delegation to discuss.
Show answer
Correct answer: A. An opening phrase such as "After reviewing the draft agreement" must be followed by the person who did the reviewing. Only the correct sentence puts "the officer" right after the phrase. In the sentence that begins "three changes were listed," the changes seem to have reviewed the agreement, and in the one about "the delegation's three changes," the changes again come right after the phrase. The last sentence scrambles the word order and is hard to follow.
Question 15 (medium)
Read the situation, then answer the question.
An office manager is writing an email to staff about a planned power outage.
Which sentence is punctuated correctly?
- A. The power will be off from 9:00 AM to noon, staff should save their work before then.
- B. The power will be off from 9:00 AM to noon staff should save their work before then.
- C. The power will be off from 9:00 AM to noon; staff should save their work before then.
- D. The power will be off from 9:00 AM to noon, therefore staff should save their work before then.
Show answer
Correct answer: C. The sentence joins two complete thoughts ("The power will be off from 9:00 AM to noon" and "staff should save their work before then"). A semicolon can join them. A comma alone cannot, and that mistake is called a comma splice. The comma before "therefore" makes the same mistake, because "therefore" is not a joining word like "and" or "but." With no punctuation at all, the two thoughts run together.
Question 16 (medium)
Read the notice, then answer the question.
The Ardmoor Exchange Fellowship accepts applications from March 1 to April 15. Applicants must be university students in their second or third year, and they must send a one-page essay and two letters of reference. Students who took part in an earlier exchange program run by the embassy may apply, but they will be considered only after all first-time applicants. Interviews will be held in May, and finalists will be told the results by email in early June.
According to the notice, what happens to a student who took part in an earlier exchange program run by the embassy?
- A. The student may not apply for the fellowship until next year's round opens.
- B. The student needs to send only one letter of reference.
- C. The student is invited to an interview in May without review.
- D. The student may apply but is considered after all first-time applicants.
Show answer
Correct answer: D. The notice says such students "may apply, but they will be considered only after all first-time applicants." The choice that says the student may not apply misreads that sentence, which allows the application. The notice gives no different rule on letters of reference or interviews for past participants, so every applicant still sends two letters, and nobody is promised an interview.
Question 17 (hard)
The numbered sentences below are from a newsletter article about a visa section's email backlog.
(1) As a result, the section now answers most questions within two working days.
(2) Last spring, the visa section in Talbridge received so many emails that replies often took three weeks.
(3) To fix this, the section posted answers to the 20 most common questions on its website.
(4) It also assigned one assistant each morning to reply only to emails that the posted answers did not cover.
Which order of the sentences makes the paragraph clearest?
- A. 2, 3, 4, 1
- B. 3, 4, 2, 1
- C. 2, 1, 3, 4
- D. 2, 4, 3, 1
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Sentence 2 states the problem, so it comes first. Sentence 3 begins "To fix this," which points back to the problem, and sentence 4 begins "It also," which adds a second step after the first one. Sentence 1 begins "As a result," and therefore it must follow the steps it describes. Putting sentence 3 first leaves "this" with nothing to point to, putting sentence 1 second gives the result before the fixes, and putting sentence 4 before sentence 3 makes "also" come before the first step.
Question 18 (hard)
Read the sentence, then answer the question.
The new budget assistant tracks spending for each section, prepares the monthly report and the training of new clerks on the payment system.
Which revision of the sentence is best?
- A. The new budget assistant tracks spending for each section, prepares the monthly report and is training new clerks on the payment system.
- B. The new budget assistant tracks spending for each section, prepares the monthly report and trains new clerks on the payment system.
- C. The new budget assistant is tracking spending for each section, prepares the monthly report and trains new clerks on the payment system.
- D. The new budget assistant tracks spending for each section, prepares the monthly report, and the training of new clerks on the payment system is also her job.
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Items in a series should have the same form. The best revision lists three verbs in the same tense: "tracks," "prepares" and "trains." Changing the last item to "is training" or the first to "is tracking" mixes two verb forms in one series, and the version that adds "is also her job" turns the last item into a separate, wordy clause instead of fixing the series.
Question 19 (easy)
Read the report excerpt, then answer the question.
Farmers in the Velmar Valley have long sold most of their apples at local markets. Over the past five years, a new cold-storage plant near the valley has let growers keep apples fresh for months, and a new rail line has cut the trip to the coast from two days to six hours. Growers now ship about a third of their crop overseas, and several have planted new orchards to meet the demand.
Which statement best expresses the main idea of the excerpt?
- A. The rail line to the coast was built mainly for the apple growers of the valley.
- B. Local markets in the Velmar Valley no longer buy apples from the growers.
- C. Better storage and transport have helped Velmar Valley growers sell apples overseas.
- D. A cold-storage plant near the valley can keep apples fresh for several months at a time.
Show answer
Correct answer: C. The excerpt describes two changes (cold storage and a faster rail trip) and then their result: growers now ship about a third of their crop overseas. The statement about storage and transport covers all of that. The cold-storage statement is true but is only one detail. The excerpt never says why the rail line was built, and it does not say local markets stopped buying apples, and only about a third of the crop now goes overseas.
Question 20 (hard)
Read the memo, then answer the question.
To all staff: The embassy's main conference room will be closed from May 4 to May 22 while new audio equipment is installed. During that time, meetings of more than 12 people should be held in the library, which seats 30. Smaller meetings may use the two offices on the second floor. The library cannot be booked on Fridays, when it is used for language classes.
Based on the memo, which statement can most reasonably be inferred?
- A. The library will be closed to staff from May 4 to May 22.
- B. Meetings of 10 people may not be held in the library.
- C. The conference room will seat more than 30 people when the work is done.
- D. A meeting of 20 people on a Friday in mid-May will need a room the memo does not name.
Show answer
Correct answer: D. A meeting of 20 is too large for the rooms the memo gives to smaller meetings, the library cannot be booked on Fridays and the conference room is closed until May 22, so none of the rooms named in the memo is open to it. The library is the room the memo sends large meetings to, not a closed room. The memo says only where meetings of more than 12 should go and that smaller ones may use the offices; it does not bar small meetings from the library. It says nothing about the conference room's size.
Logical Reasoning
Short hypothetical work scenarios where you pick the best response: inferences, conclusions, logical flaws and assumptions. No Foreign Service knowledge needed. The practice test has 30 questions in 45 minutes.
Question 21 (easy)
Read the statement, then answer the question.
An office assistant tells a coworker: "The printer on the third floor must be broken. I sent four documents to print this morning, and none of them came out."
Which assumption does the assistant make?
- A. The documents went to the third-floor printer, not another one.
- B. The third-floor printer was working normally when it was last used yesterday afternoon.
- C. Other staff members have also had trouble printing this morning.
- D. The printer is out of paper rather than broken.
Show answer
Correct answer: A. The conclusion that the third-floor printer is broken holds only if the documents actually went to that printer; if they went to a different printer, the third-floor machine could be fine. Whether it worked yesterday and whether others had trouble would add support, but the argument does not need either one. A printer that is out of paper is a different explanation that would weaken the conclusion, not an assumption the assistant makes.
Question 22 (medium)
Read the proposal, then answer the question.
A consular officer at the Dunmara consulate writes: "We should send each applicant a text message two days before a visa appointment. Last year the consulate in Vosmere began sending such reminders, and its rate of missed appointments fell by a third within six months."
The officer's argument depends on which assumption?
- A. Every applicant at the Dunmara consulate owns a cell phone.
- B. Text reminders cost less to send than reminder letters sent by mail.
- C. The reminders, not some other change, caused most of Vosmere's drop.
- D. Dunmara now has more missed appointments than Vosmere had before it began the reminders.
Show answer
Correct answer: C. The officer uses Vosmere's drop in missed appointments as proof that reminders work, which makes sense only if the reminders caused the drop. If Vosmere also changed its hours or its booking system at the same time, the evidence falls apart. Reminders could still help even if not every applicant owns a cell phone, so that is not required. Cost and the two consulates' exact rates are not part of the argument.
Question 23 (medium)
Read the report, then answer the question.
An economic officer surveyed 400 business owners who stopped at the embassy's booth of American farm goods at a national trade fair. Of them, 340 said they planned to buy American farm products in the next year. The officer concludes that most business owners in the country plan to buy American farm products in the next year.
Which is the most serious weakness in the officer's reasoning?
- A. A survey of only 400 business owners is too small to tell anything about a whole country's businesses.
- B. Owners who stop at a booth of American farm goods are probably more interested in them than most owners.
- C. The officer does not say which kinds of farm products the owners plan to buy.
- D. Some of the owners surveyed may change their plans before the year is over.
Show answer
Correct answer: B. The people surveyed chose to visit a booth of American farm goods, so they are likely to be far more interested in those goods than business owners in general. The sample is not representative. A sample of 400 can be large enough when it is chosen fairly, so its size is not the main problem. The kinds of products do not matter to the conclusion, and the conclusion is about plans, so later changes of plan do not weaken it.
Question 24 (hard)
Read the memo, then answer the question.
A management officer writes: "Staff who chose to take the embassy's optional evening language classes last year received higher performance ratings, on average, than staff who did not. The classes clearly improve job performance, and we should therefore require every staff member to take them."
Which is the most serious flaw in this argument?
- A. It does not say which languages were taught in the evening classes.
- B. It relies on ratings from only one year rather than from several years.
- C. It assumes that staff who skipped the classes had no interest in languages.
- D. It ignores that staff who already performed well may have been more likely to choose the classes.
Show answer
Correct answer: D. The classes were optional, so the staff who took them chose to. Motivated, high-performing staff may be the ones who sign up for extra classes, which would explain the higher ratings even if the classes changed nothing. Which languages were taught does not affect the reasoning, and one year of data is a smaller concern than the missing explanation. The argument says nothing about the interests of staff who skipped the classes.
Question 25 (easy)
Read the statement, then answer the question.
A consular manager says: "Our new online form, not the holiday season, is the reason the number of incomplete passport applications dropped in December."
Which fact, if true, would most strengthen the manager's claim?
- A. Incomplete applications stayed low in January and February, after the holidays ended.
- B. Incomplete applications also dropped every December for three years before the form existed.
- C. Many staff members took vacation days during the holiday season.
- D. The new online form takes longer to fill out than the old paper form.
Show answer
Correct answer: A. If the holidays caused the drop, the number should rise again once they end. Staying low in January and February points to the form instead. A drop every December before the form existed would point to the season and weaken the claim. Staff vacations do not explain fewer incomplete applications, and the time it takes to fill out the form says nothing about whether it caused the drop.
Question 26 (medium)
Read the claim, then answer the question.
The embassy's public affairs section says that its new series of short online videos caused attendance at its free monthly concerts to rise from about 200 people to about 450.
Which fact, if true, would most weaken the section's claim?
- A. Most of the people who watched the videos were under 30 years old.
- B. Several people at the concerts said they first heard about them from the videos.
- C. In the month the videos began, the concerts moved from a hall that seats 220 to a park with no seating limit.
- D. The videos cost less to make than the printed posters the section used before.
Show answer
Correct answer: C. If the concerts moved at the same time from a hall that held only 220 people to a park with no limit, the room size alone could explain why attendance passed 200, and the videos may not be the cause. The age of the viewers does not show whether the videos brought people. Concertgoers who heard about the concerts from the videos support the claim, and the cost of the videos has nothing to do with attendance.
Question 27 (hard)
Read the rule, then answer the question.
Under a made-up embassy rule, a request to use an official vehicle is approved only if it is sent at least two working days in advance and is for official business. On Monday, the motor pool received four requests. Request 1 was for official business and was sent three working days in advance. Request 2 was for official business and was sent one working day in advance. Request 3 was for official business and was sent two working days in advance. Request 4 was for official business, but no sending date was recorded.
Which conclusion is justified by the rule?
- A. Request 1 was approved.
- B. Request 3 was approved.
- C. Request 4 was not approved.
- D. Request 2 was not approved.
Show answer
Correct answer: D. "Approved only if" names conditions a request must meet, not conditions that ensure approval. Request 2 was sent only one working day in advance, so it fails a required condition and cannot have been approved. Requests 1 and 3 meet both conditions, but the rule does not say that every such request is approved, so their approval cannot be concluded. Request 4's date is unknown, so the rule does not settle it either way.
Question 28 (hard)
Read the facts, then answer the question.
The Kaltberg consulate has 60 local staff members. Of them, 45 speak French and 30 speak Arabic.
Which statement must be true?
- A. Exactly 15 staff members speak both French and Arabic.
- B. At least 15 staff members speak both French and Arabic.
- C. At most 15 staff members speak both French and Arabic.
- D. At least one staff member speaks neither French nor Arabic.
Show answer
Correct answer: B. There are 45 + 30 = 75 language counts among only 60 people, so at least 75 - 60 = 15 people must be counted twice, that is, speak both languages. The number could be higher (if some staff members speak neither language, or if all 30 Arabic speakers also speak French), so "exactly 15" and "at most 15" do not have to be true. Every staff member could speak at least one of the two languages, so the last statement is not certain either.
Question 29 (medium)
Read the report, then answer the question.
At the Corlan embassy, every vehicle that leaves the compound must first be signed out in the motor pool log. All vehicles were inside the compound at 6:00 AM on Tuesday. The log shows that only two vehicles were signed out on Tuesday, both before 8:00 AM, and that both were back by noon. A guard reports that she saw the embassy's white van outside the compound at 3:00 PM on Tuesday.
If the guard's report and the log are both accurate, which conclusion is best supported?
- A. The white van left the compound on Tuesday without being signed out in the log.
- B. The white van was one of the two vehicles signed out before 8:00 AM.
- C. The guard saw a different white van, not the embassy's van.
- D. One of the two vehicles signed out on Tuesday was not back by noon.
Show answer
Correct answer: A. The van was inside at 6:00 AM and outside at 3:00 PM, so it left on Tuesday. The only sign-outs that day were back by noon, so whether or not the van was one of them, it went out again after noon with no entry in the log. The report does not say which vehicles were signed out, so the van may or may not have been one of the two. A different van and a late return both contradict the report or the log, which the question says are accurate.
Question 30 (easy)
Read the memo, then answer the question.
The visa section at the Pellacor consulate can interview at most 120 applicants a day. Since Monday, 150 applicants have booked interviews for each working day, and no staff or interview windows have been added.
Which conclusion is best supported by the memo?
- A. The consulate will hire more staff for the visa section next month.
- B. The visa section interviewed more than 120 applicants on Monday.
- C. Unless something changes, some applicants will not be interviewed on the day they booked.
- D. Applicants will soon stop booking interviews at the Pellacor consulate because of the long waits.
Show answer
Correct answer: C. If 150 people are booked each day and the section can interview at most 120, at least 30 booked applicants a day cannot be seen on their booked day unless something changes. The memo says nothing about hiring plans or about applicants giving up. Interviewing more than 120 in a day goes against the stated limit.
What these questions are, and are not
The State Department's online practice test sets out the three sections, the four answer choices and the length (125 questions in 115 minutes), and Pearson VUE gives the test rules, including no calculator. These 30 questions practice the same three sections. The Job Knowledge questions test stable facts from public government sources (the Constitution, the Office of the Historian, the Federal Reserve and the Bureau of Economic Analysis), and the English and Logical Reasoning questions use made-up memos and scenarios. The State Department does not publish the live test's question counts, scoring or how many questions come from each topic, so these questions are not copies of the real test, and the real test may look different.
Frequently asked questions
Are these real FSOT questions?
No. Every question on this page is our own. None is copied or reworded from the State Department's online practice test or from the real test, and candidates agree not to share real test questions. The Job Knowledge answers come from public government pages named in each explanation.
How many questions are on the FSOT?
The State Department's online practice test has 125 questions: 50 Job Knowledge, 45 English Usage and Comprehension and 30 Logical Reasoning, with 35, 35 and 45 minutes, 115 minutes in all. Separate counts for the live test are not published. See what is on the new FSOT.
Is there math on the FSOT?
Yes. The State Department's practice-test page listed math and statistics as part of Job Knowledge, as captured on October 7, 2026 (the page has since been removed). Pearson VUE does not allow a calculator, and at home you get only a digital whiteboard, so practice working small sums, averages and medians by hand.
What is on the FSOT Logical Reasoning section?
Short hypothetical work scenarios. The practice test says no knowledge of the Foreign Service is needed, and you pick the best of four answers. The questions ask about inferences, conclusions, logical flaws and assumptions in an argument.
Is there an official FSOT practice test?
Yes. The State Department offers an online practice test with 125 questions in 115 minutes, which it says simulates the length and the questions of the new test. Use it once you have studied, and use the questions on this page for extra practice in all three sections.
What score do I need on the FSOT?
No current State Department or Pearson VUE page publishes a score scale or a cut score. The score report you get right after the test shows whether you passed or failed. See the FSOT score and what comes next.
Get an email when FSOT practice tests open
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More free guides: what is on the new FSOT, FSOT test dates and registration, the FSOT score and what comes next and how to become a Foreign Service Officer.
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Last updated October 2026